Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are white men so obsessed with Asian women? I'm friends with people from all different backgrounds but I never see my other non-white male friends obsess over or talk about Asian women like I've seen the white ones do.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Libtards argue Obama deported more people than Trump, but if that were true why weren't they comparing Obama to Idi Amin?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Have you ever been forced to dress like a girl?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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